GPAT 2012 QUESTION PAPER

Q.1 Which of the following respective Phase-I and Phase-II reactions are the most common drug biotransformation reactions?
(A) Oxidation and Glucuronidation
(B) Reduction and Acetylation
(C) Hydrolysis and Glucuronidation
(D) Oxidation and Glutathion conjugation

Q.2 Which one of the following drugs has positive inotropic and negative chronotropic action?
(A) Dopamine (B) Epinephrine (C) Digoxin (D) Isoprenaline

Q.3 Which one of the following therapeutic classes has been proved clinically as a first line therapy for heart failure and has shown decreased hospitalization, improved symptoms and delayed disease progression?
(A) Cardiac glycosides (C) Renin Antagonists
(B) ACE Inhibitors (ACEIs) (D) Nitrites

Q.4 Which one of the following glucose transporters is the new drug target for the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus?
(A) Sodium glucose linked transporter-2 (SGLT2)
(B) Glucose transporter-1 (GLUT1)
(C) Sodium glucose linked transporter-1 (SGLT1)
(D) Glucose transporter-2 (GLUT2)

Q.5 Which one of the following modes of HIV transmission carries highest relative risk of infection with single exposure?
(A) Transfusion of blood and blood products
(B) Perinatal - from mother to child
(C) Sexual contacts with infected partners
(D) Syringe sharing with drug addicts

Q.6 Which of the followings are the critical neurotransmitters playing major role in depression?
(A) Acetylcholine, Norepinephrine and Dopamine
(B) Dopamine, Norepinephrine and Serotonin
(C) Serotonin, Dopamine and y-Amino butyric acid
(D) Acetylcholine, Serotonin and y-Amino butyric acid

Q.7 A 55 years old man is under DOTS treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis for the last four months. Now, he has developed symptoms of peripheral neuritis. Which one of the followings is the right addition to his therapy to manage peripheral neuritis?
(A) Cyanocobalamin (B) α-Lipoic acid
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Prednisolone

Q.8 What is the primary mechanism of action of local anesthetics?
(A) Activation of ligand-gated potassium channels
(B) Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels
(C) Stimulation of voltage-gated N-type calcium channels
(D) Blockade of GABA-gated chloride channels

Q.9 Which one of the following anti-asthmatic drugs can cause convulsions and arrhythmia?
(A) Prednisolone (B) Salmeterol (C) Zafirlukast (D)Theophylline

Q.10 Which one of the following anti-arrhythmic drugs acts by inhibiting potassium, sodium and calcium channels?
(A) Quinidine (B) Lignocaine (C) Amiodarone (D) Flecainid

Q.11 A 48 years old woman is having the symptoms of weight gain, cold intolerance,
constipation, bradycardia, puffy face, lethargy and dry skin. These symptoms are suggestive of which of the followings?
(A) Over use of corticosteroid (B) Hypothyroidism
(C) Estrogen deficiency (D) Over use of thyroxin sodium

Q.12 Increased risk of hypoglycemia and weight gain is the common side effect of drugs used in the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus. Followings are some commonly used drugs, alone or in combination, for the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus:
[P]: Metformin [Q]: Pioglitazone
[R]: Glipizide [S]: Sitagliptin
Choose the correct combination which is weight neutral and without risk of hypoglycemia.
(A) P and Q (B) Q and R (C) R and S (D) P and S

Q.13 Which one of the following receptors is NOT a ligand-gated ion channel receptor?
(A) Nicotinic Receptor (B) 5HT3 - Receptor
(C) GABAA - Receptor (D) H2 - Receptor

Q.14 Which one of the following classes of drugs causes side effects like dryness of mouth, tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation, blurring of vision, precipitation of glaucoma, drowsiness and impairment of cognition?
(A) Anti-adrenergic (B) Anti-cholinergic
(C) An ti-serotonergic (D) Anti-dopaminergic

Q.15 Which of the following cytokines are the most important regulators in inflammation and are the targets for anti-inflammatory agents used in rheumatoid arthritis?
(A) Tumor necrosis factor-a and Interleukin-1
(B) Acetylcholine esterase and Eicosanoids
(C) Leukotrienes and Isoprostanes
(D) Adhesion factor and Monoamine oxidase A

Q.16 Which one of the followings is a FALSE statement for competitive antagonists?
(A) They have an affinity for the agonist binding site on receptor
(B) They have no intrinsic activity
(C) They cause parallel rightward shift of the control dose response curve
(D) Maximum response of the agonist cannot be achieved in their presence by increasing the concentration of the agonist.

Q.17 Atypical antipsychotics differ from the typical antipsychotics in various ways that define them as atypical. Which one of the followings is NOT a defining property of the atypical antipsychotics?
(A) Sustained hyperprolactinemia
(B) Improved efficacy in treating the negative symptoms
(C) Lower risk for extrapyramidal side effects (EPSs)
(D) Greater serotonin receptor blockade than dopamine blockade
Q. 18 Which one of the following drugs produces significant relaxation of both venules and arterioles?
(A) Hydralazine (B) Minoxidil
(C) Diazoxide (D) Sodium nitroprusside

Q.19 Antiviral action of purine analogues is primarily related to the followings:
[P]: Inhibition of RNA synthesis [Q]: Inhibition of DNA polymerase
[R]: Immunomodulation [S]: Inhibition of viral penetration
Choose the correct option:
(A) R is correct and Q is incorrect (B) Q is correct and S is incorrect
(C) P is correct and R is incorrect (D) S is correct and P is incorrect

Q.20 All of the given four drugs are sympathomimetics:
[P]: Adrenaline [Q]: Isoprenaline
[R]: Phenylephrine [S]: Noradrenaline
Choose the correct statement related to their effects on blood pressure.
(A) P and Q increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure
(B) Q and R increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure
(C) R and S increase systolic blood pressure
(D) P and S increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure

Q.21 All of the given four drugs are neuromuscular blocking agents.
[P]: Gallamine [Q]: Succinylcholine
[R]: Vecuronium [S]: d-Tubocurarine
Choose the correct statement about them.
(A) P and Q are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
(B) Q and R are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
(C) R and S are non-competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
(D) P and S are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents

Q.22 Which one of the followings is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor indicated for a variety of malignancies?
(A) Imatinib (B) Paclitaxel (C) Ezetimibe (D) Mitomycin

Q.23 Which one of the followings is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy when detected in urine?
(A) Estrogens
(B) Progesterone
(C) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
(D) Corticotropic Hormone

Q.24 Followings are some opioid analgesics:
[P]: Morphine [Q]: Pethidine
[R]: Pentazocine [S]: Fentanyl
Choose the correct order of respiratory depressant propensity of these agents.
(A) P>Q>R>S (B) Q>P>R>S (C) R>P>Q>S (D) S>P>Q>R

Q.25 Corticosteroids are administered to treat some of the given disease states:
[P] : Peptic ulcer [Q] : Bronchial asthma
[R] : Nephrotic syndrome [S] : Myasthenia gravis
Choose the correct statement about the use of corticosteroids for the treatment of these diseases.
(A) P, Q and S are treated while R is NOT
(B) P, R and S are treated while Q is NOT
(C) Q, R and S are treated while P is NOT
(D) P, Q and R are treated while S is NOT

Q.26 Which one of the following statements is FALSE for fluoroquinolones?
(A) These are highly effective by oral and parenteral routes
(B) These are relatively more susceptible to development of resistance
(C) These are effective against those bacteria that are resistant to ß-lactam and
aminoglycoside antibiotics
(D) These are bactericidal with broad spectrum of activity

Q.27 Increased serum levels of which one of the followings may be associated with decreased risk of atherosclerosis?
(A) VLDL (B) LDL
(C) HDL (D) Total Cholesterol

Q.28 Metformin causes the following actions EXCEPT for the one. Identify that.
(A) Reduces hepatic neoglucogenesis
(B) Increases glucose uptake in skeletal muscles
(C) Enhances sensitivity to insulin
(D) Increases HbA1c by 1% to 2%

Q.29 Misoprostol has a cytoprotective action on gastrointestinal mucosa because of one of the following actions. Identify that.
(A) It enhances secretion of mucus and bicarbonate ion
(B) It neutralizes hydrochloric acid in stomach
(C) It antagonizes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
(D) It is bactericidal to H. pylori

Q.30 Which of the following drugs can precipitate bronchial asthma?
[P] : Indomethacin [Q] : Codeine phosphate
[R] : Rabeprazole [S] : Theophylline
Choose the correct option.
(A) P and R can do that (B) P and Q can do that
(C) R and S can do that (D) S and Q can do that

Q.31 Which one of the following alkaloids is derived from Lysine?
(A)Emetine (B) Chelidonine (C) Lobeline (D) Stachydrine

Q.32 Histologically the barks of Cinnamomum cassia and Cinnamomum zeylanicum differ in one of the following features. Identify that.
(A) Sclerieds
(B) Phloem Fibers
(C) Pericyclic Fibres
(D) Cortex

Q.33 The following characteristic properties are given in context of saponins:
[P] : Saponins give precipitate by shaking with water.
[Q] : Saponins are diterpenes and give foam on shaking with water.
[R] : Saponins are triterpenoidal compounds and cause haemolysis of erythrocytes.
[S] : They are steroidal or triterpenoidal compounds with tendency to reduce surface
tension of water.
Choose the correct option.
(A) P is true; Q is true; R is true; S is true
(B) P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is true
(C) P is false; Q is true; R is true; S is true
(D) P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true
Q.34 Read the given statements about the constituents of Shellac:
[P]: Shellolic acid, a major component of alicyclic fraction is responsible for
colour.
[Q]: Shellolic acid, a major component of aromatic fraction is responsible for
colour.
[R]: Shellolic acid is a major component of aliphatic fraction and laccaic acid is a
component of aromatic fraction.
[S]: Aliphatic components are shellolic acid which is alicyclic and aleuratic acid
which is acyclic, while laccaic acid is an aromatic colouring principle.
What is the correct combination of options?
(A) P is true; Q is true; R is true; S is true
(B) P is false; Q is false; R is false; S is true
(C) P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true
(D) P is true; Q is false; R is false; S is true

Q.35 Major component of Cymbopogon citratus is citral which is utilized commercially for the followings:
[P]: Synthesis of Vitamin A directly from citral
[Q]: Synthesis of Vitamin A by first converting to T-ionone
[R]: Synthesis of Vitamin A by first converting to T-ionone followed by conversion
to a-ionone which is very important intermediate for carotenoid synthesis
[S]: Synthesis of Vitamin A by first conversion of citral to T-ionone followed by conversion to P-ionone which is an important intermediate for carotenoid synthesis
Which is the correct combination of options?
(A) P is true; Q is true; R is true; S is true
(B P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is true
(C) P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true
(D) P is false; Q is false; R is false; S is false

Q.36 Which one of the following constituents is reported to have anti-hepatotoxic activity?
(A) Podophyllotoxin (C) Linalool
(B) Andrographoloid (D) Safranal

Q.37 Geranial and Neral are the monoterpene aldehyde constituents of volatile oil. Read the following statements about them:
[P] : Geranial and Neral are both optical isomers
[Q] : Geranial and Neral are both geometric isomers
[R] : Geranial has Z configuration and Neral has E configuration
[S] : Geranial has E configuration and Neral has Z configuration
(A) Choose the correct combination of answers for them.
(B) P is false; Q is true; R is true; S is false
(C) P is true; Q is false; R is true; S is true
(D) P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is false

Q.38 All of the followings applicable to Lignans are correct statements except for one. Identify the INCORRECT statement.
(A) Lignans are formed by the dimerization of the phenylpropane moiety
(B) Podophyllotoxin can be termed phytochemically as a lignan
(C) Lignans can be formed by cyclization of phenylpropane nucleus
(D) Lignans are the secondary metabolites formed from the Shikimic acid pathway

Q.39 Naringin, obtained from orange peel, can be named as one of the followings. Identify the correct name.
(A) 5,4'-Dihydroxy-7-rhamnoglucoside of flavanone
(B) 5,4'-Dihydroxy-7-glucoside of flavanone
(C) 5,3',4'-Trihydroxy-7-rhamnoglucoside of flavone
(D) 5,3',4'-Trihydroxy-7-glucoside of flavone

Q.40 Rhizomes of Zingiber officinale contain some sesquiterpene hydrocarbons. Some hydrocarbons are given below:
[P] : ß-Bisabolene [Q]: Gingerone A
[R] : Gingerol [S]: Zingiberene
Identify the correct pair of constituents present in the rhizomes.
(A) P and S (B) P and Q (C) Q and S (D) Q and R

Q.41 Listed below are the chemical tests used to identify some groups of phytoconstituents. Identify the test for the detection of the purine alkaloids.
(A) Keller-Killani Test (C) Shinoda Test
(B) Murexide Test (D) Vitali-Morin Test

Q.42 Given below are four statements in context of Hecogenin:
[P] : It is a saponin
[Q] : It is useful for the semi-synthesis of steroidal drugs
[R] : It is not a glycoalkaloid
[S] : It is obtained from Dioscorea tubers
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q and R are correct while S is incorrect
(B) P, Q and S are correct while R is incorrect
(C) Q, R are correct while P, S are incorrect
(D) All are correct statements

Q.43 Atropine biosynthesis involves a pair of precursors. Identify the correct pair.
(A) Ornithine and Phenylalanine
(B) Tyrosine and Tryptophan
(C) Tryptophan and Dopamine
(D) Tyrosine and Dopamine

Q.44 Study the following statements:
[P]: Lutein and zeaxanthin are flavonoids
[Q]: Lutein and zeaxanthin are xanthophylls
[R]: Lutein and zeaxanthin are required to control age-related
macular degeneration
[S]: Lutein is a flavonoid while zeaxanthin is its glycoside Choose the correct
answer.
(A) P is correct while Q, R and S are incorrect
(B) Q and R are correct while P and S are incorrect
(C) Statement P is the only correct statement
(D) Statement S is the only correct statement

Q.45 Listed below are some phytoconstituents.
[P]: Galactomannan [Q]: Glucomannan
[R]: Barbaloin [S]: Phyllanthin
Identify the constituent(s) present in Aloe vera.
(A) Only P (B) Q and R (C) Only S (D) P and S

Q.46 Choose the correct answer for the binomial nomenclature of fruits of star-anise.
(A) Pimpinella anisum (B) Illicium verum
(C) Illicium anisatum (D) Illicium religiosum

Q.47 Given herewith are two statements:
[P]: Digitoxin is a secondary glycoside from Digitalis purpurea
[Q]: Digitoxin is a partially hydrolysed glycoside of Purpurea glycoside A
Determine the correctness of the above statements.
(A) Both P and Q are true (B) P is true but Q is false
(C) Both P and Q are false (D) P is false but Q is true

Q.48 Peruvoside is naturally obtained from one of the following plants. Identify the correct name.
(A) Dioscorea (B) Ginseng (C) Liquorice (D) Thevetia

Q.49 One of the followings is NOT required for the initiation and maintenance of plant tissue culture. Identify that.
(A) Sucrose (B) Kinetin (C) Auxin (D) Absicic acid

Q.50 Study the relationship between the given two statements:
[P]: Capsanthin is a red coloured principle from Capscicum annum
[Q]: Capsanthin is a vanillylamide of isodecenoic acid Choose the correct answer.
(A) Both P and Q are correct (B) Both P and Q are incorrect
(C) P is correct but Q is incorrect (D) P is incorrect but Q is correct

Q.51 For the equation PV = nRT to hold true for a gas, all of the following conditions are necessary EXCEPT for ONE. Identify that.
(A) The molecules of gas must be of negligible volume
(B) Collisions between molecules must be perfectly elastic
(C) The velocities of all molecules must be equal
(D) The gas must not be decomposing

Q.52 Atracurium besylate, a neuromuscular blocking agent, is metabolized through one of the following reactions. Identify that.
(A) Hoffman elimination (B) Hoffman rearrangement
(C) Michael addition (D) Claisen condensation

Q.53 Identify the metabolite of prontosil responsible for its antibacterial activity.
(A) Sulphacetamide (B) Sulphanilamide
(C) p-Amino benzoic acid (D) Probenecid

Q.54 The central bicyclic ring in penicillin is named as one of the followings.
Find the correct name.
(A) 1-Thia-4-azabicyclo[3.2.1]heptane
(B) 4-Thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptane
(C) 4-Thia-l-azabicyclo[3.2]heptane
(D) 1-Thia-4-azabicyclo[1.2.3]heptane

Q.55 Both of the CMR and PMR spectra of an unknown compound show four absorption peaks each. Identify the unknown compound.

Q.56 Out of the four given compounds choose the one which is aromatic?
Diagram.

Q.57 Quantification of minute quantity of a drug from a complex matrix, without prior separation can be done using one of the following techniques. Identify that.
(A) Coulometry (B) Potentiometry
(C) Fluorescence spectroscopy (D) Radioimmunoassay

Q.58 Which one of the following fragmentation pathways involves a double bond and a y- hydrogen in mass spectrometry?
(A) a-Fission (B) p1- Fission
(C) Mc-Lafferty rearrangement (D) Retro-Diel's Alder rearrangement

Q.59 Read the following statements carefully about non-aqueous titrations:
[P]: Acetate ion is the strongest base capable of existence in acetic acid.
[Qj: Mixtures of bases of different strengths can be analyzed by selecting a
differentiating solvent for the bases.
[R]: Acetic acid acts as a leveling solvent for various acids like perchloric and
hydrochloric acids.
[S]: Mixtures of bases of different strengths can be analyzed by selecting a leveling solvent for the bases.
Choose the correct answer.
(A) P and Q are true and R and S are false
(B) P and S are true and R and Q are false
(C) R and Q are true and P and S are false
(D) R and S are true and P and Q are false

Q.60 Read the following statements carefully about Volhard's method:
[P] : In Volhard's titration, silver ions are titrated with thiocyanates in acidic solution
[Q]: Ferric ions act as indicator in Volhard's method, yielding reddish brown ferric thiocyanate
[R] : Volhard's method is used to determine halides
[S] : Volhard's method is a direct titration
Choose the correct set of answers.
(A) P, Q and R are true and S is false
(B) Q, R and S are true and P is false
(C) R. S and P true and Q is false
(D) P, Q, R and S all are true

Q.61 Identify the group of enzymes that utilizes NADP or NAD as coenzymes and catalyzes biochemical reactions by the transfer of electrons from one molecule to another.
(A) Isomerases
(B) Oxidoreductases
(C) Transferases
(D) Ligases

Q.62 Glucose is the only source of energy for one of the followings. Identify that.
(A) Cardiac cells (B) Nephrons
(C) RBCs (D) Thrombocytes

Q.63 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]:
Assertion [a] : Halogens are unusual in their effect on electrophilic aromatic substitution; they are deactivating yet ortho-, para - directing.
Reason [r] : In electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions, reactivity is controlled by stronger inductive effect while orientation is controlled by the stronger hyperconjugation effect.
Choose the correct statement.
(A) [a] is true but [r] is false
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]

Q.64 Given are the four statements about dehydration of alcohols to give alkenes:
[P] : Ease of dehydration of alcohols takes place in the order 3°> 2°>1°
[Q]: Dehydration is acid catalyzed.
[R]: Orientation of the alkene formed is strongly Saytzeff.
[S] : Dehydration is irreversible.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P and Q are correct while R and S are not
(B) P, Q and R all three are correct but S is not
(C) P, Q, R and S all are correct
(D) P, Q and S all three are correct but R is not

Q.65 Choose the correct statement regarding the synthesis of phenyl n-propyl ether.
(A) Phenyl n-propyl ether is prepared from n-propyl bromide and sodium phenoxide
(B) Phenyl n-propyl ether is prepared from bromobenzene and sodium n-propoxide
(C) Phenyl n-propyl ether can be prepared by either of the two methods
(D) Both (A) and (B) are not the correct methods for the synthesis of phenyl n-propyl ether

Q.66 Read the following statements about SN1 reactions:
[P] : They proceed with complete inversion (Walden inversion).
[Q] : They proceed with racemization plus some net inversion."
[R] : They are characterized by rearrangements.
[S] : They are characterized by the reactivity sequence, CH3>1°>2°>3° Choose the correct combination?
(A) P and Q are true while R and S are false
(B) P and R are true while S and Q are false
(C) Q and R are true while P and S are false
(D) R and S are true while P and Q are false

Q.67 Read the following statements carefully:
[P] : Pyrrole and thiophene undergo electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions much faster than benzene
[Q] : Pyrrole and thiophene undergo Diels Alder addition reaction very fast
[R] : Pyrrole and thiophene undergo nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction faster than benzene
[S] : Pyrrole is a pie excessive system while thiophene is a pie deficient system
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) Q only is true while P, R and S are false
(B) R and S are true while P and Q are false
(C) P and R are true while Q and S are false
(D) P only is true while Q, R and S are false

Q.68 Among the followings which one is not only a non-reducing sugar but also does not exhibit mutarotation?
(A) Glucose (B) Maltose (C) Lactose (D) Sucrose

Q.69 Choose the most basic heterocyclic compound among the followings.
(A) Pyridine (B) Imidazole (C) Pyrrole (D) Pyrrolidine

Q.70 Followings are some drug derivatives used to increase/decrease the water solubility of the parent drugs:
[P] : Rolitetracycline
[Q] : Erythromycin lactobionate
[R] : Chloramphenicol succinate
[S] : Erythromycin stearate
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) Q and R are used to increase water solubility while P and S are used to decrease it
(B) P, Q and R are used to increase water solubility while S is used to decrease it
(C) Q, S and R are used to increase water solubility while P is used to decrease it
(D) Q and S are used to increase water solubility while P and Q are used to decrease it

Q.71. Study the following statements on prevention of crystalluria. By the given approaches crystalluria can be prevented:
[P] : By co-administration of sulfadiazine, sulfamerazine and sulfamethazine
[Q] : By increasing the pH of urine
[R] : By co-administration of sulphanilamide, sulphamethoxazole and folic acid
[S] : By administration of co-trimoxazole
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P and Q are correct (B) R and S are correct
(C) P and R are correct (D) Q and R are correct

Q.72 Progesterone is obtained from diosgenin through the following sequence of chemical reactions:
[P] : Acetylation, Cr03 (oxidation), Acetolysis, H2/Pd, Hydrolysis and Oppenauer oxidation
[Q] : Oppenauer oxidation, Acetylation, Cr03 (oxidation), Acetolysis, H2/Pd and Hydrolysis
[R] : Cr03 (oxidation), Acetolysis, Acetylation, Oppenauer oxidation, Hydrolysis and H2/Pd
[S] : Acetylation, H2/Pd, Hydrolysis, Cr03 (oxidation), Oppenauer oxidation and Acetolysis
Choose the correct sequence of reactions.
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Q. 73 Following statements are given for local anaesthetic drug lidocaine:
[P] : It contains a xylidine moiety.
[Q] : It can be used as antiarrhythmic agent on oral administration. [R] : When administered along with adrenaline its toxicity is reduced and its effect is prolonged.
[S] : Chemically it is 2-diethylamino-2',6'-dimethylphenyl acetamide Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q and S (B) P, Q and R (C) P, R and S (D) Q, R and S

Q. 74 One of the following ring systems can be used as the bioisosteric replacement for benzene ring in drug design:
IP]: Thiophene [Q]: Cyclohexa-l,3-diene
[R]: Pyrrolidine [S} : Imidazoline
Identify the correct answer.
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Q.75 Some of the following statements describe the properties of Dropping Mercury Electrode (DME) correctly:
[P] Constant renewal of electrode surface eliminates poisoning effects.
[Q] Mercury makes many metal ions easily reducible.
[R] Mercury has large hydrogen over-voltage.
[S] The electrode can get oxidised with ease.
Identify the correct combination.
(A) All statements P, Q, R and S are correct
(B) Statements P. Q and R only are correct
(C) Statements P, R and S only are correct
(D) Statements P, Q and S only are correct

Q.76 Penicillin ring system is derived from two of the following amino acids:
[P] : Alanine and methionine [Q] : Cysteine and valine [R] : Glycine and cysteine [S] : Methionine and leucine
Choose the correct pair.
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Q.77 For the management of which disease the given drug tacrine is used?
Identify. NH2
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Antidote for acticholinesterase poisoning
(C) As an insecticide
(D) Alzheimers disease

Q.78 Low dose aspirin acts as anti-platelet aggregating agent by which one of the
following mechanisms? Find the correct answer.
(A) It acts as a suicide substrate for COX-1 enzyme present in platelets
(B) It acts as a transition state analog for COX-2 enzyme present in the platelets
(C) It acts as a reversible inhibitor of lipoxigenase present in the platelets
(D) It acts as an affinity label of oxidoreductases present in the platelets

Q.79 Some statements are given for clavulanic acid, sulbactam and tazobactam:
[P] : All three lack the 6-acylamino side chain
[Q]: All are potent inhibitors of the enzyme ß-lactamase
[R] : All are prodrugs of penicillin
[S] : All have weak antibacterial activity
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q and R are true while S is false
(B) Q, R and S are true while P is false
(C) P, R and S are true while Q is false
(D) P, Q and S are true while R is false

Q.80 Electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions in indole give one of the following products preferably. Identify that.
(A) 3-Substituted indole (B) 2-Substituted indole
(C) 5-Substituted indole (D) 6-Substituted indole

Q.81 Which one of the following species is an intermediate in the reaction shown
below?
NaOH
2CH3CH2CHO ---------> CH3CH2CH(OH).CH(CH3).CHO
(A) +CH2.CH2.CHO (B) -CH2.CH2.CHO
(C) CH3.+CH.CHO (D) CH3.-CH.CHO

Q.82 Which detector is used in gas chromatography for halogen containing compounds specifically?
(A) Katharometer
(B) Electron capture detector
(C) Flame ionization detector
(D) Thermal conductivity detector

Q.83 Precessional frequency of a nucleus depends on the followings:
[P] : Quantum of externally applied magnetic field
[Q] : Quantum of electron density present around the nucleus
[R] : Frequency of applied electromagnetic radiations
[S] : Electronegativity of the element
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P & Q are true (B) P & R are true
(C) Q & R are true (D) P & S are true

Q.84 Some statements are given about disodium edetate:
[P] : Disodium edetate is a bidentate ligand
[Q] : Disodium edetate is a complexing agent but not a chelating agent
[R] : Disodium edetate can be used for the assay of lithium carbonate
[S] : Disodium edetate can be used for the assay of zinc sulphate
Choose the correct answer.
(A) Q, R & S are true (B) Q & S are true
(C) S only is true (D) P, Q, R & S all are true

Q.85 Which one of the following amino acids is the most effective contributor of protein buffer?
(A) Alanine (B) Glycine (C) Histidine (D) Arginine

Q.86 Given are some statements about cycloalkanes:
[P] : Bayer's theory does not apply to four membered rings.
[Q]: Cyclohexane and cyclodecane rings are not flat but are puckered.
[R]: Chair form of cyclohexane experiences van der Waals strain due to flagpole interactions.
[S] : Boat form of cyclohexane experiences both torsional and van der Waals strain. Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q & R are true and S is false
(B) Q & S are true and P & R are false
(C) P, Q & S are true and R is false
(D) Q, R & S are true and P is false

Q.87 Phenols are more acidic than alcohols. This is due to one the following reasons. Identify that.
(A) Alkoxide ions are better stabilized by the electron releasing alkyl groups
(B) Resonance stabilizes both phenols and phenoxide ions to the same extent
(C) Phenols are better stabilized than the phenoxide ions while reverse is true for alcohols and alkoxides
(D) Phenoxide ions are much better stabilized than the alkoxide ions

Q.88 Study the following statements on alkylating agents as antineoplastics:
[P] : They get converted to aziridinium ions and bind to 7th position -N atom of guanine of DNA base pairs
[Q] : Nitrogen mustards and Sulfur mustards belong to this class of drugs
[R] : They inhibit dihydrofolate reductase enzyme thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis
[S] : They chelate electropositive atoms present in the DNA thereby inhibiting DNA uncoiling
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P and Q are correct (B) R and S are correct
(C) P and S are correct (D) Q and R are correct

Q.89 Study the following statements about the stereochemistry of steroidal aglycones in cardiac glycosides:
[P] : Rings A-B and C-D are cis fused while B-C is trans fused.
[Q] : Rings A-B and C-D are trans fused while B-C is cis fused.
[R] : Rings A-B are trans fused while B-C and C-D are els fused.
[S] : Rings A-B are cis fused while B-C and C-D are trans fused.
Choose the correct statement.
(A) P is true while Q, R and S are false
(B) Q is true while P, R and S are false
(C) R is true while P, Q and S are false
(D) S is true while P, R and Q are false

Q.90 Following are some statements about Captopril:
[P] : It is a prototype molecule in the design of ACE inhibitors
[Q] : It contains a sulphonyl group in its structure
[R] : It has a proline moiety in its structure
[S] : It has an ester linkage
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P & Q are true while R & S are false
(B) Q & R are true while P & S are false
(C) P & R are true while Q & S are false
(D) R & S are true while P & Q are false

Q.91 Cetirizine as an antihistaminic agent has a low sedative potential due to one of the following reasons. Identify that.
(A) It has a chiral center (B) It has high log P value
(C) It has high polarity (D) It has low molecular weight

Q.92 There are some criteria which an ideal antacid should fulfill. Some of the criteria are given below:
[P] : The antacid should be absorbable orally and should buffer in the pH range of 4 - 6
[Q]: The antacid should exert its effect rapidly and should not cause a large evolution of gas
[R] : The antacid should not be a laxative or should not cause constipation
[S] : The antacid should react with the gastric acid and should inhibit pepsin
Choose the correct combination of criteria for an ideal antacid.
(A) P, Q&R (B) Q, R&S (C) Q&R (D) R & S

Q.93 Titanium dioxide is used in sun screen products as a topical protective. The topical protective effect of titanium dioxide is arising due to one of the following properties. Identify that.
(A) It has a high bulk density (B) It has a high LTV absorptivity
(C) It has a low water solubility (D) It has a high refractive index

Q.94 Deferoxamine is used for the treatment of toxicity caused by one of the following ions. Identify that.
(A) Arsenic (B) Cyanide (C) Iron (D) Lead

Q.95 Parachor and Molar refraction can be categorized under one of the following properties. Identify that.
(A) Additive properties (B) Constitutive properties
(C) Colligative properties (D) Additive and constitutive property

Q.96 East's camphor method is used for determination of molecular weight of solutes which are soluble in molten camphor. The basic principle of the method is dependent on one of the following properties. Identify that.
(A) Elevation of freezing point of camphor by the solute
(B) Lowering of vapour pressure of camphor by the solute
(C) Lowering of freezing point of camphor by the solute
(D) Elevation of boiling point of camphor by the solute

Q.97 In polarography, when the limiting current is achieved, one of the following processes takes place. Choose that.
(A) The rate of electron transfer just matches the rate of mass transfer
(B) The rate of electron transfer is slower than the rate of mass transfer
(C) The rate of electron transfer becomes independent of the rate of mass transfer
(D) The rate of electron transfer far exceeds the rate of mass transfer

Q.98 Starch-iodide paste/paper is used as an external indicator in one of the following titrations. Identify that.
(A) lodometric titration of copper sulphate using sodium thiosulphate as titrant
(B) Iodimetric titration of ascorbic acid using iodine solution as titrant
(C) Diazotisation titration of sulphadiazine using sodium nitrite as titrant
(D) Potassium dichromate titration using sodium thiosulphate as titrant

Q.99 For a dye to be used as metal indicator in complexometric titrations, some of the dye properties are listed below:
[P] : The dye should have distinct colour than the dye-metal complex
[Q]: The dye-metal complex should have a higher stability than the metal-chelate (titrant) complex
[R] : The dye should be capable of complexing with the metal ions
Choose the correct combination of statements for the dye to be used as an indicator in complexometric titrations.
(A) P & Q are correct while R is not
(B) Q & R are correct while P is not
(C) P & R are correct while Q is not
(D) P, Q & R all are correct

Q.100 In amperometry, rotating platinum electrode (RPE) is used as indicating electrode. It has certain advantages as well as disadvantages. Read the following statements about the use of rotating platinum electrode in amperometry:
[P] : It causes large diffusion current due to rotation resulting in greater mass transfer
[Q] : It causes greatly reduced residual current due to lack of condenser effect
[R] : It has a low hydrogen over potential
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q & R are all advantages of using RPE in amperometry
(B) P & R are advantages of RPE while Q is a disadvantage
(C) Q & R are advantages of RPE while P is a disadvantage
(D) P & Q are advantages of RPE while R is a disadvantage

Q.101 What will be the approximate Tmax of a drug exhibiting Ka of 2 hr-1 and K of 0.2 hr-1?
(A) 1.2 hr (B) 2.4 hr (C) 4.8 hr (D) 2.0 hr ,

Q.102 There are some statements related to the protein binding of drugs as given below:
[P] : Protein binding decreases the free drug concentration in the system.
[Q]: Protein binding to plasma albumin is an irreversible process.
[R] : Drugs with a low lipophilicity have a high degree of protein binding.
[S] : Protein binding of one drug can be affected by the presence of other drug.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P & Q are true while R & S are false
(B) Q & R are true while P & S are false
(C) R & S are true while P & Q are false
(D) P & S are true while Q & R are false

Q.103 Based on Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, at what pH value a weak acid would be 99.9% ionized?
(A) At pH equivalent to pka + 3 (B) At pH equivalent to pka — 3
(C) At pH equivalent to pka - 1 (D) At pH equivalent to pka + 1

Q.104 Some statements about crystals are given below:
[P] : The crystal lattice is constructed from repeating units called unit cells.
[Q]: The external appearance of a crystal is described by crystal habits, such as
needles, prisms, rosettes etc.
[R] : Polymorphism is the ability of a compound to crystallize as more than one
distinct crystalline species with different internal lattice.
[S] : Hydrates are always more soluble than anhydrous form of the same drug Choose the corrected combination of statements about crystals.
(A) Statement P, Q and S are correct but R is wrong
(B) Statement P, Q and R are correct but S is wrong
(C) Statement Q, R and S are correct but P is wrong
(D) Statement R, S and P are correct but Q is wrong

Q.105 Which one of the followings is NOT used in preparation of baby powders?
(A) Stearic acid (B) Boric acid
(C) Kaolin (D) Calcium carbonate

Q.106 According to Kozeny Carmen equation a 10% change in porosity can produce:
(A) Two fold change in viscosity (B) Five fold change in viscosity
(C) Three fold change in viscosity (D) None of the above

Q.107 Speed disk atomizer rotates at a speed of:
(A) 3000 - 5000 revolutions per min
(B) 3000 - 50000 revolutions per min
(C) 300 - 50000 revolutions per min
(D) 300 - 5000 revolutions per min

Q.108 The Gold coating on a USP Dissolution apparatus - I basket should be:
(A) Not more than 2.5µ in thickness
(B) Not more than 0.001 mm in thickness
(C) Not more than 0.025µ in thickness
(D) Not more than 0.1 mm in thickness

Q.109 Containers used for aerosols should withstand a pressure of:
(A) 130-150 Psig at 130 °F (B) 140-180 Psig at 130 °F
(C) 140-170 Psig at 120 °F (D) 120-140 Psig at 120 °F

Q.110 Study the following two statements:
[X] : If the gas is cooled below its critical temperature, less pressure is required to liquefy it.
[Y] : At critical temperature and critical pressure, the liquid will have highest vapor pressure.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) Both X and Y are correct
(B) X is incorrect and Y is correct
(C) X is correct and Y is incorrect
(D) Both X and Y are incorrect

Q.111 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion [a]: For an API of approximately same particle size, the angle of repose will increase with departure from spherical shape. Reason
[r] : Angle of repose is a function of surface roughness and particle size. With
constant particle size, increase in roughness increases angle of repose.
(A) Although [a] is true but [r] is false
(B) Both [a] and [rj are false
(C) Both fa] and [rj are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]

Q.112 Study the following two statements:
fX] : When used as granulating agent PEG 6000 improves dissolution rate of the dosage form as it forms a complex with a better solubility.
[Y] : Sodium CMC when used as a binder affects dissolution rate of the dosage form as it is converted to less soluble acid form at low pH of the gastric fluid.
Choose the correct answer.
(A) Both X and Y are correct
(B) X is incorrect and Y is correct
(C) X is correct and Y is incorrect
(D) Both X and Y are incorrect .

Q.113 Study the following statements about Gram staining:
[P]: Gram positive bacteria are stained deep violet and Gram negative bacteria are stained red.
[Q]: Gram positive bacteria are stained red and Gram negative bacteria are stained deep violet.
[R]: The sequence of addition of staining reagents is crystal violet, iodine solution, alcohol and safranin.
[S] : In Gram positive bacteria the purple color developed during staining is lost during alcohol treatment. The cells later take up the safranin and stain red.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q, R & S all are false £g) P & Q are false and R & S are true
(C) P & S are false and Q & R are true (D) P & R are false and Q & S are true

Q.114 Choose the correct formula for the calculation of the retail price of a formulation, given by the Govt, of India.
(A) R.P. = (M.C. + E.D. + P.M. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + C.C.
(B) R.P. = (M.C. + C.C. + P.M. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + E.D.
(C) R.P. = (M.C. + C.C. + E.D. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + P.M.
(D) R.P. = (M.C, + C.C. + P.M.+ E.D.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + P.C,

Q. 115 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion [a] : In arsenic poisoning, dimercaprol, injected intramuscularly, acts as
antidote by metal complexation. Reason [r] : EDTA acts as an antidote in lead poisoning, by solubilizing the toxic
metal ions from the tissues.
(A) Although [a] is true but [r] is false
(B) Both [a] and [r] are false
(C) Both [a] and fr] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]

Q.116 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reasons [r & s]:
Assertion fa] : Butylated hydroxytoluene is added as one of the ingredients in the lipstick formulation.
Reason [r] : It is a good solvent for the wax - oil mixtures and coloring pigments
present in the lipstick. Reason [sj : It is an antioxidant and prevents rancidity on storage.
(A) [a] is true, and [r] and fs] are true and correct reasons for [a]
(B) [a], [r] and fs] are all false
(C) [a] is true, [s] is false, and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(D) [a] is true, [r] is false, and [sj is the correct reason for fa]

Q.117 Which one of the following statements is FALSE about Interferons?
(A) Interferons are cellular glycoproteins produced by virus infected cell
(B) Interferons have no effects on extracellular virus
(C) Interferons are virus specific agents that can interfere either with DNA or RNA virus
(D) They are produced as potent broad spectrum antiviral agents

Q.118 In relation to sodium chloride and water mixture, read the following statements:
[P] : Mixture is eutectic in nature
[Q]: It has eutectic point -21.2°C
[R]: The composition of eutectic is 25.3% by Mass
[S] : The mixture is a true eutectoid and may exist as peritectic also.
Which of the set of statements is correct?
(A) P&Q (B) Q, R&S (C) P, Q&S (D), P, R & S

Q.119 In relation to sterilization, what is the meaning of D300F - 2 minutes?
(A) Death of all microorganisms in 2 minutes
(B) Death of 300 microorganism in 2 minutes
(C) Death of all microorganism in 2 minutes at 300°F
(D) Death of 90% microorganism in 2 minutes at 300°F

Q.120 Choose the correct combination:
i Rod mill p Dried plant drug
ii Hammer mill q Thermolabile drug
iii Fluid energy mill r Paint
(A) i & q, ii & p, iii & r (g) i&r, ii&p, iii & q
(C) i & q, ii & r, iii & p (D) i&p, ii&q, iii & r

Q.121 Which one of the following statements is NOT true for stainless steel 316?
(A) It is also called inox steel
(B) It contains 10.5 - 11% chromium
(C) Due to the presence of chromium it exhibits passivation phenomenon
(D) It is not affected by acids

Q.122 Precise control of flow is obtained by which one of the followings?
(A) Needle valve (B) Butterfly valve
(C) Gate valve (D) Globe valve

Q.123 Heat sensitive materials like fruit juice are evaporated in which one of the followings?
(A) Long tube vertical evaporator
(B) Calandria type evaporator
(C) Falling film type evaporator
(D) Forced circulation type evaporator

Q. 124 Which of the following conditions favor formation of large crystals?
(A) High degree of supersaturation (B) Low nucleation rate
(C) High magma density (D) Rapid cooling of magma

Q.125 If M, L, T, Q and θ are dimensional representations of mass, length, time, heat and temperature respectively, then what is the dimension of fluid thermal conductivity?
(A) Q/Mθ (B) Q/TL2θ (C) Q/TLθ (D) M/LT

Q.126 Which one of the following properties is characteristic of microemulsions?
(A) These are transparent systems with droplet size less than 1 µm
(B) These are transparent systems with droplet size less than 10 µm
(C) These are non-transparent systems with droplet size less than 1 µm
(D) These are transparent systems with droplet size less than 1 nm

Q.127 Which one of the followings would be an offence in accordance with the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?
(A) Packing of Paediatric oral drops in 30 ml pack
(B) Packing of Oxytocin injection in a single unit blister pack
(C) Packing of Schedule X drugs in 5 ml injection pack
(D) Packing of Aspirin tablets (75 mg) in 14 tablet strip pack

Q.128 Which one of the following colours is NOT permitted to be used in drugs by the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?
(A) Chlorophyll (B) Riboflavin (C) Tartrazine (D) Amaranth

Q.129 At equal concentrations which one of the following mucilages will possess maximum
viscosity?
(A) Maize starch (B) Rice starch
(C) Wheat starch (D) Potato starch

Q.130 By which mechanism the microorganisms are killed by autoclaving?
(A) Coagulation of the cellular proteins of the microorganisms
(B) Alkylation of essential cellular metabolites of microorganisms
(C) Stopping reproduction of microorganism cells as a result of lethal mutations
(D) Oxidation of RNA of microorganisms

Q.131 Manufacture and sale of some of the following drugs is prohibited in India:
[P] : Fixed dose combination of atropine and antidiarrhoeals
[Q]: Penicillin eye ointment
[R]: Nimesulide paediatric drops
[S] : Gatifloxacin tablets
Choose the drugs which are prohibited?
(A) P, Q&R (B) Q, S&R
(C) R, S&P (D) P, Q, R & S

Q.132 Following are the phases of clinical trials:
[P] : Human pharmacology
[Q]: Therapeutic confirmatory trials
[R] : Post marketing trials
[S] : Therapeutic exploratory trials
Choose the correct order of phases of clinical trial.
(A) P, Q, R, S (B) P,R, Q, S
(C) P,Q,S,R (DI P, S, Q, R

Q.133 The integrity of seals in case of vials and bottles is determined by some tests. Some of them are given below:
[P]: Leaker's test
[Q]: Water hammer test
[R]: Spark tester probe
Choose the correct answer.
(A) P & Q (B) Q&R (C) P&R (D) P, Q & R all

Q.134 Study the following four statements:
[P] : Gram negative bacteria produce potent pyrogenic substances called endotoxins
[Q]: Ethylene oxide mixed with carbon dioxide or fluorinated hydrocarbons is used in gas sterilization
[R]: D value is the time (for heat or chemical exposure) or the dose (for radiation exposure) required for the microbial population to decline by one logarithmic unit
[S] : Spores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus {Bacillus stearothermophilus) are used for sterility testing of moist heat sterilization process
Choose the correct answer.
(A) P, Q & R are correct but S is incorrect
(B) Q, R & S are correct but P is incorrect
(C) R, S & P are correct but Q is incorrect
(D) P, Q, R & S all are correct

Q.135 Read the following statements:
[P] : The surface area measurement using BET approach utilizes argon gas for adsorption
[Q]: Full form of BET is Brunauer, Emmett and Teller
Choose the correct answer.
(A) P & Q both are correct
(B) P is correct but Q is incorrect
(C) Q is correct but P is incorrect
(D) Both P & Q are incorrect

Q. 136 Based on the DLVO theory of force of interaction between colloidal particles, which one of the followings lead to attractive interaction between two particles?
(A) Solvation forces (T4). Electrostatic forces
(C) van der Waals forces (B) Steric forces

Q.137 Read the following statements with regard to viscosity of a polymer solution:
[P] : Specific viscosity of a polymer solution is obtained as relative viscosity + 1
[Q]: Relative viscosity is the ratio of the viscosity of the solution to the viscosity of pure solvent
[R]: Kinematic viscosity is defined as the viscosity of the liquid at a definite temperature
[S] : The unit for kinematic viscosity is poise or dyne sec cm"2 Indicate the correct combination of statements.
(A) P & S are correct but Q&R are wrong
(B) Q & R are correct but P & S are wrong
(C) P & Q are correct but R & S are wrong
(D) R & S are correct but P & Q are wrong

Q.138 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]
Assertion [a]: Salts having no ions in common with the slightly soluble electrolyte increase its solubility
Reason [r]: Such salts lower the activity coefficient of the slightly soluble electrolyte
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and fr] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are false
(C) Although [a] is true but [r] is false
(D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]

Q.139 What negative adsorption would do?
(A) Decrease the surface free energy as well as the surface tension
(B) Increase the surface free energy as well as the surface tension
(C) Decrease the surface free energy but increase the surface tension
(D) Increase the surface free energy but decrease the surface tension

Q.140 Read the following statements:
[P] : At temperature below Kraft point, micelles will, not form
[Q]: At Kraft point, solubility of surfactant equals CMC
[R] : Kraft point increases with increasing chain length of hydrocarbon
[S] : Kraft point is normally exhibited by non-ionic surfactants
Choose the correct combination of answers.
(A) P is correct but Q, R & S are wrong
(B) R & S are correct but P & Q are wrong
(C) P, Q & R are correct but S is wrong
(D) P, Q, R & S all are correct
Q.141 Two statements are given regarding the uniformity of dispersion test (LP.):
[P] : It is evaluated using 6 tablets and 500 mL water
[Q]: It involves measuring the dispersion time of each tablet
Choose the correct set of statements.
(A) P is correct while Q is incorrect
(B) P & Q both are correct
(C) P is incorrect while Q is correct
(p) Both P & Q are incorrect

Q.142 Read the following statements:
[P] : Caramelization occurs in acidic conditions
[Q]: Caramel is optically inactive glucose
[R] : Caramel is obtained by burning of glucose
[S] : Caramel is obtained by degradation of fructose
Choose the right combination of statements.
(A) P & Q are true but R & S are false
(B) P & S are true but Q & R are false
(C) Q & R are true but P & S are false
(D) R & S are true but P & Q are false

Q.143 Read the following statements regarding value added tax (VAT):
[P] : It is an indirect tax
[Q]: It is charged at the rate of 8%
[R] : It is tax at source
[S] : It is effective since April 2010
Choose the correct option.
(A) P & Q are true R & S are false
(B) R & S are true P & Q are false
(C) P & R are true Q & S are false
(D) Q & S are true P & R are false

Q.144 Find the process by which the conversion of sulfasalazine to sulfapyidine and 5-amino salicylic acid takes place in the colon?
(A) Hydrolysis (B) Deamination
(C) Acetylation (D) Azoreduction

Q.145 How much quantity (in grams) of sodium chloride is needed to make 30 ml of a 2% isotonic drug (sodium chloride equivalent 0.20) solution?
(A) 0.60 (C) 0.15
(B) 0.27 (D) 0.12

Q.146 Read the following statements about lyophilization:
[P] : Lyophilization cannot be done in final containers like multiple dose containers.
[Q]: Lyophilized product needs special methods for reconstitution.
[R] : Lyophilization causes protein denaturation in tissues.
[S] : Lyophilization is suitable for drying the thermolabile products.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P is true and Q, R & S are false (B) Q is true and P, R & S are false
(C) R is true and P, Q & S are false (D) S is true and P, Q & R are false

Q.147 In a pharmacokinetic model depicted in the following scheme, what is the half-life of the drug if the apparent volume of distribution of the drug is 25 L?
250 mg i.v. ?
0.173 /hr
?
(A) 1.7 hr (B) 2hr (C) 4 hr (D) 3 hr

Q.148 A sample of paracetamol tablets claims to contain 500 mg of paracetamol. But, on analysis by Govt. Analyst, it was found to contain 200 mg. As per Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, this product would be categorized as what?
(A) Misbranded drug (B) Adulterated drug
(C) Spurious drug (D) Unethical drug

Q.149 Use of which of the following artificial sweeteners is permitted in various dosage forms of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani proprietary medicines?
(A) Sucralose (B) Aspartame (C) Saccharin (D) All of them

Q.150 What will be the maintenance dose of a sustained release 12 hour formulation of drug X exhibiting one compartment kinetics with a half-life of 6 hours, plasma concentration (steady state) 6 ug/ml, volume of distribution 30 L, and an oral bioavailability of 80%?
(A) 249.48 mg (B) 225.48 mg (C) 311.85 mg (D) 281.85 mg

APPSC DRUG INSPECTORS RECRUITMENT NOTIFICATION 2012

ANDHRA PRADESH PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION: HYDERABAD
NOTIFICATION NO. 2 8 / 2 0 1 1 , Dt : - 2 7 / 1 2 / 2 0 1 1
DRUG INSPECTOR IN A.P. DRUGS CONTROL ADMINISTRATION SERVICE
(GENERAL RECRUITMENT)

Recruitment applications are invited On-line through the proforma Application to be made available on WEBSITE (www.apspsc.gov.in) in from 22/02/2012 to 22/03/2012

(Note:20/03/2012 is the last date for payment of fee) for recruitment to the post of Drug Inspector in A.P. Drugs Control Administration Service.
The desirous eligible Candidates may apply ON-LINE by satisfying themselves with the
terms and conditions of this recruitment. The details are as follows:-

Post code : 01

Name of the Post : Drug Inspector in A.P. Drugs
Control Administration Service.

No. of vacancies : 56

Age as on
01/07/2011 : Min. 18 years
Max. 36* years

Scale of
Pay Rs. : 16,150 - 42590



Source : http://website.apspsc.gov.in

GPAT 2012 SYLLABUS

PHARMACEUTICS

Introduction to Physical pharmacy
Matter, Properties of Matter:
State of matter, change in the state of matter, latent heats and vapor pressure, sublimation-critical point, Eutectic mixtures, gases, aerosols-inhalers, relative humidity, liquid. complexes, liquid crystals, glassy state, solids- crystalline, amorphous and polymorphism.
Micromeretics and Powder Rheology:
Particle size and distribution, average particle size, number and weight distribution, particle number, methods for determining particle volume, methods of determining particle size- optical microscopy, sieving, sedimentation; measurements of particle shape, specific surface area; methods for determining surface area; permeability, adsorption, derived properties of powders, porosity, packing arrangement, densities, bulkiness & flow properties.
Surface and Interfacial Phenomenon:
Liquid interface, surface and interfacial tensions, surface free energy, measurement of surface and interfacial tensions, spreading coefficient, adsorption at liquid interfaces, surface active agents, HLB classification, solubilization, detergency, adsorption at solid interfaces, solid-gas and solid-liquid interfaces, complex films, electrical properties of interface.
Viscosity and Rheology:
Newtonian systems, Law of flow, kinematic viscosity, effect of temperature; non-Newtonian systems: pseudoplastic, dilatant, plastic; thixotropy, thixotropy in formulation, negative thixotropy, determination of viscosity, capillary, falling ball, rotational viscometers.
Dispersion Systems:
Colloidal dispersions: Definition, types, properties of colloids, protective colloids, applications of colloids in pharmacy; Suspensions and Emulsions: Interfacial properties of suspended particles, settling in suspensions, theory of sedimentation, effect of Brownian motion, sedimentation of flocculated particles, sedimentation parameters, wetting of particles, controlled flocculation, flocculation in structured vehicles, rheological considerations; Emulsions-types, theories, physical stability.
Complexation:
Classification of complexes, methods of preparation and analysis, applications.
Kinetics and Drug Stability:
General considerations & concepts, half-life determination, Influence of temperature, light, solvent, catalytic species and other factors, Accelerated stability study, expiration dating.

Importance of microbiology in pharmacy
Structure of bacterial cell; Classification of microbes and their taxonomy:
Actinomycetes, bacteria, rickettsiae, spirochetes and viruses;
Identification of Microbes:
Stains and types of staining techniques, electron microscopy; Nutrition, cultivation, isolation of bacteria, actinomycetes, fungi, viruses, etc; Microbial genetics and variation;
Control of microbes by physical and chemical methods:
Disinfection, factors influencing disinfectants, dynamics of disinfection, disinfectants and antiseptics and their evaluation;
Sterilization:
different methods, validation of sterilization methods & equipments; Sterility testing of all pharmaceutical products. Microbial assays of antibiotics, vitamins & amino acids.

Immunology and Immunological Preparations:
Principles, antigens and heptans, immune system, cellular/humoral immunity, immunological tolerance, antigen-antibody reactions and their applications. Hypersensitivity, active and passive immunization. Vaccines and sera: their preparation, standardization and storage.
Genetic Recombination:
Transformation, conjugation, transduction, protoplast fusion and gene cloning and their applications. Development of hybridoma for monoclonal antibodies. Study of drugs produced by biotechnology such as Activase, Humulin, Humatrope, HB etc;
Antibiotics:
Historical development of antibiotics. Antimicrobial spectrum and methods used for their standardization. Screening of soil for organisms producing antibiotics, fermenter, its design, control of different parameters. Isolation of mutants, factors influencing rate of mutation. Design of fermentation process. Isolation of fermentation products with special reference to penicillins, streptomycins tetracyclines and vitamin B12.

Introduction to pharmaceutical jurisprudence & ethics
Pharmaceutical Legislations:
A brief review; Drugs & Pharmaceutical Industry - A brief review; Pharmaceutical Education - A brief review;
An elaborate study of the followings:
Pharmaceutical Ethics; Pharmacy Act 1948; Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 and Rules 1945; Medicinal & Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act 1955; Narcotic Drugs & Psychotropic Substances Act 1985 & Rules; Drugs Price Control Order;
A brief study of the following Acts with special reference to the main provisions and the latest amendments:
Poisons Act 1919; Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act 1954; Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act 1970 & Rules 1975; Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960; States Shops & Establishments Act & Rules; Insecticides Act 1968; AICTE Act 1987; Factories Act 1948; Minimum Wages Act 1948; Patents Act 1970.
A brief study of the various Prescription/Non-prescription Products. Medical/Surgical accessories, diagnostic aids, appliances available in the market.

Introduction to dispensing and community pharmacy
Prescription:
Handling of prescription, source of errors in prescription, care required in dispensing procedures including labeling of dispensed products. General dispensing procedures including labeling of dispensed products; Pharmaceutical calculations: Posology, calculation of doses for infants, adults and elderly patients; Enlarging and reducing recipes percentage solutions, alligation, alcohol dilution, proof spirit, isotonic solutions, displacement value etc;
Principles involved and procedures adopted in dispensing of :
Typical prescriptions like mixtures, solutions, emulsions, creams, ointments, powders, capsules, pastes, jellies, suppositories, ophthalmic, pastilles, lozenges, pills, lotions, liniments, inhalations, paints sprays tablet triturates, etc;
Incompatibilities:
Physical and chemical incompatibilities, inorganic incompatibilities including incompatibilities of metals and their salts, non-metals, acids, alkalis, organic incompatibilities. Purine bases, alkaloids, pyrazolone derivatives, amino acids, quaternary ammonium compounds, carbohydrates, glycosides, anesthetics, dyes, surface active agents, correction of incompatibilities. Therapeutic incompatibilities;
Community Pharmacy:
Organization and structure of retail and whole sale drug store-types of drug store and design, legal requirements for establishment, maintenance and drug store-dispensing of proprietary products, maintenance of records of retail and wholesale, patient counseling, role of pharmacist in community health care and education (First aid, communicable diseases, nutrition, family planning).

Organization and Structure of hospital pharmacy:
Organization of a hospital and hospital pharmacy, Responsibilities of a hospital pharmacist, Pharmacy and therapeutic committee, Budget preparation and Implementation.
Hospital Formulary:
Contents, preparation and revision of hospital formulary.
Drug Store Management and Inventory Control:
Organization of drug store, Types of materials stocked, storage conditions; Purchase and Inventory Control principles, purchase procedures, Purchase order, Procurement and stocking; Drug distribution Systems in Hospitals:
Out-patient dispensing, methods adopted; Dispensing of drugs to in-patients. Types of drug distribution systems. Charging policy, labeling; Dispensing of drugs to ambulatory patients; Dispensing of controlled drugs, Dispensing of ancillary supplies; Central Sterile Supply Unit and their Management:
Types of materials for sterilization, Packing of materials prior to sterilization, sterilization equipments, Supply of sterile materials.
Manufacture of Sterile and Non-sterile Products:
Policy making of manufacturable items, demand and costing, personnel requirements, manufacturing practice, Master formula Card, production control, Manufacturing records.
Drug Information Services:
Sources' of Information on drugs, disease, treatment schedules, procurement of information, Computerized services (e.g., MEDLINE), Retrieval of information, Medication error- types of medication errors, correction and reporting.
Records and Reports:
Prescription filling, drug profile, patient medication profile, cases on drug interaction and adverse reactions, idiosyncratic cases. Pharmacoeconomics: Introduction to pharmacoeconomics, different methods of pharmacoeconomics, application of pharmacoeconomics. Pharmacoepidemiology: Definition and scope, method to conduct pharmacoepidemiological studies, advantages & disadvantages of pharmacoepidemiological studies.
Nuclear Pharmacy:
Methods of handling radioisotopes, radioisotope committee.

Importance of unit operations in manufacturing, Stoichiometry:
Unit processes
Material and energy balances, molecular units, mole fraction, tie substance, gas laws, mole volume, primary and secondary quantities, equilibrium state, rate process, steady and unsteady states, dimensionless equations, dimensionless formulae, dimensionless groups, different types of graphic representation, mathematical problems.
Fluid Flow:
Types of flow, Reynold's number, Viscosity, Concept of boundary layer, basic equations of fluid flow, valves, flow meters, manometers and measurement of flow and pressure.
Heat transfer:
Concept of heat flow, applications of Fourier’s law, forced and natural convection, surface coefficients, boiling liquids, condensing vapors, heat exchangers, heat interchangers, radiation, black body, Stefan Boltzmann equation, Kirchoff’s law.
Evaporation:
Basic concept of phase equilibria, factor affecting evaporation, evaporators, film evaporators, single effect and multiple effect evaporators, Mathematical problems on evaporation.
Distillation:
Roult's law, phase diagrams, volatility; simple steam and flash distillations, principles of rectification, Mc-Cabe Thiele method for calculations of number of theoretical plates, Azeotropic and extractive distillation.
Drying:
Moisture content and mechanism of drying, rate of drying and time of drying calculations; classification and types of dryers, dryers used in pharmaceutical industries and special drying methods.
Size Reduction:
Definition, objectives of size reduction, mechanisms of size reduction, factors affecting size reduction, laws governing energy and power requirements of a mills including ball mill, hammer mill, fluid energy mill. Size separation: Different techniques of size separation, sieves, sieve shakers, sedimentation tank, cyclone separators, bag fillers etc.
Mixing:
Theory of mixing, solid-solid, solid-liquid and liquid-liquid mixing equipments.
Filtration and Centrifugation:
Theory of filtration, continuous and batch filters, filter aids, filter media, industrial filters including filter press, rotary filter, edge filter, etc. Factors affecting filtration, filtration, optimum cleaning cycle in batch filters. Principles of centrifugation, industrial centrifugal filters, and centrifugal sedimenters;
Crystallization:
Characteristics of crystals like-purity, size, shape, geometry, habit, forms size and factors affecting them, Solubility curves and calculation of yields. Material and heat balances around Swenson Walker Crystallizer. Supersaturation, theory and its limitations, Nucleation mechanisms, crystal growth. Study of various types of Crystallizers, tanks, agitated batch, Swenson Walker, Single vacuum, circulating magma and Krystal Crystallizer, Caking of crystals and its prevention. Numerical problems on yields;
Dehumidification and Humidity Control:
Basic concepts and definition, wet bulb and adiabatic saturation temperatures, Hygrometric chart and measurement of humidity, application of humidity measurement in pharmacy, equipments for dehumidificat4ion operations;
Refrigeration and Air Conditioning:
Principle and applications of refrigeration and air conditioning;
Material of Construction :
General study of composition, corrosion, resistance, Properties and applications of the materials of construction with special reference to stainless steel and glass.
Material Handling Systems:
Liquid handling - Different types of pumps, Gas handling-Various types of fans, blowers and compressors, Solid handling-Bins, Bunkers, Conveyers, Air transport.
Corrosion:
Classification, mechanism of corrosion, factors affecting, prevention and control.
Plant location:
Layout, utilities and services.
Industrial Hazards and Safety Precautions:
Mechanical, Chemical, Electrical, fire and dust hazards. Industrial dermatitis, Accident records etc.
Automated Process Control Systems:
Process variables, temperature, pressure, flow, level and vacuum and their measurements; elements of automatic process control and introduction to automatic process control systems; elements of computer aided manufacturing (CAM). Reactors and fundamentals of reactors design for chemical reactions.

Dosages Forms, designing & evaluation
Liquid Dosages Forms:
Introduction, types of additives used in formulations, vehicles, stabilizers, preservatives, suspending agents, emulsifying agents, solubilizers, colors, flavors and others, manufacturing packaging, labeling, evaluation of clear liquids, suspensions and emulsions official in pharmacopoeia;
Semisolid Dosage Forms:
Definitions, types, mechanisms of drug penetration, factors influencing penetration, semisolid bases and their selection. General formulation of semisolids, clear gels manufacturing procedure, evaluation and packaging;
Suppositories:
Ideal requirements, bases, displacement value, manufacturing procedure, packaging and evaluation;
Extraction and Galenical Products:
Principle and method of extraction, preparation of infusion, tinctures, dry and soft liquid extracts;
Blood Products and Plasma Substitutes:
Collection, processing and storage of whole human blood, concentrated human RBCs, dried human plasma, human fibrinogen, human thrombin, human normal immunoglobulin, human fibrin, foam plasma substitutes, -ideal requirements, PVP, dextran etc. for control of blood pressure as per I.P.;
Pharmaceutical Aerosols:
Definition, propellants, general formulation, manufacturing' and packaging methods, pharmaceutical applications;
Ophthalmic Preparations:
Requirements, formulation, methods of preparation, labeling, containers, evaluation;
Cosmeticology and Cosmetic Preparations:
Fundamentals of cosmetic science, structure and functions of skin and hair. Formulation, preparation and packaging of cosmetics for skin, hair, dentifrice and manicure preparations like nail polish, nail polish remover, Lipsticks, eye lashes, baby care products etc.
Capsules:
Advantages and disadvantages of capsule dosage form, material for production of hard gelatin capsules, size of capsules, formulation, method of capsule filling, soft gelatin, capsule shell and capsule content, importance of base absorption and minimum/gm factors in soft capsules, quality control, stability testing and storage of capsule dosage forms.
Micro-encapsulation:
Types of microcapsules, importance of microencapsulation in pharmacy, microencapsulation by phase separation, coacervation, multi-orifice, spray drying, spray congealing, polymerization complex emulsion, air suspension technique, coating pan and other techniques, evaluation of micro capsules.
Tablets:
Advantages and disadvantages of tablets, Application of different types of tablets, Formulation of different types of tablets, granulation, technology on large-scale by various techniques, different types of tablet compression machinery and the equipments employed, evaluation of tablets. Coating of Tablets: Types of coating, film forming materials, formulation of coating solution, equipments for coating, coating process, evaluation of coated tablets. Stability kinetics and quality assurance.
Parenteral Products:
Pre-formulation factors, routes of administration, water for injection, and sterile water for injection, pyrogenicity, non aqueous vehicles, isotonicity and methods of its adjustment, Formulation details, Containers and closures and selection, labeling; Pre-filling treatment, washing of containers and closures, preparation of solution and suspensions, filling and closing of ampoules, vials, infusion fluids, lyophilization & preparation of sterile powders, equipment for large scale manufacture and evaluation of parenteral products; Aseptic Techniques-source of contamination and methods of prevention, Design of aseptic area, Laminar flow bench services and maintenance. Sterility testing of pharmaceuticals.
Surgical products:
Definition, primary wound dressing, absorbents, surgical cotton, surgical gauzes etc., bandages, adhesive tape, protective cellulosic hemostastics, official dressings, absorbable and non-absorbable sutures, ligatures and catguts.
Packaging of Pharmaceutical Products:
Packaging components, types, specifications and methods of evaluation, stability aspects of packaging. Packaging equipments, factors influence choice of containers, legal and official requirements for containers, package testing.

Designing of dosage forms:
Pre-formulation studies, Study of physical properties of drug like physical form, particle size, shape, density, wetting, dielectric constant. Solubility, dissolution and organoleptic properties and their effect on formulation, stability and bioavailability. Study of chemical properties of drugs like hydrolysis, oxidation, reduction, racemization, polymerization etc., and their influence on formulation and stability of products. Study of pro-drugs in solving problems related to stability, bioavailability and elegancy of formulations. Design, development and process validation methods for pharmaceutical operations involved in the production of pharmaceutical products with special reference to tablets, suspensions. Stabilization and stability testing protocol for various pharmaceutical products. ICH Guidelines for stability testing of formulations.
Performance evaluation methods:
In-vitro dissolution studies for solid dosage forms methods, interpretation of dissolution data. Bioavailability studies and bioavailability testing protocol and procedures. In vivo methods of evaluation and statistical treatment. GMP and quality assurance, Quality audit. Design, development, production and evaluation of controlled/sustained/extended release formulations.

Biopharmaceutics & Pharmacokinetics
Introductiont to biopharmaceutics:
Passage of drugs across biological barrier (passive diffusion, active transport, facilitated diffusion, ion-pair formation and pinocytosis); Factors influencing absorption- biological, physico-chemical, physiological and pharmaceutical; Drug distribution in the body, plasma protein binding.
Pharmacokinetics:
Significance of plasma drug concentration measurement. Compartment model- Definition and Scope. Pharmacokinetics of drug absorption - Zero order and first order absorption rate constant using Wagner-Nelson and residual methods. Volume of distribution and distribution coefficient. Compartment kinetics- One compartment and two compartment models. Determination of pharmacokinetic parameters from plasma and urine data after drug administration by intravascular and oral route. Clearance concept, mechanism of renal clearance, clearance ratio, determination of renal clearance. Extraction ratio, hepatic clearance, biliary excretion, extra-hepatic circulation. Non-linear pharmacokinetics with special reference to one compartment model after I.V. drug administration.
Clinical Pharmacokinetics:
Definition and scope: Dosage adjustment in patients with and without renal and hepatic failure; Design of single dose bio-equivalence study and relevant statistics; Pharmacokinetic drug interactions and their significance in combination therapy.
Bioavailability and bioequivalence:
Measures of bioavailability, Cmax, tmax, Keli and Area Under the Curve (AUC); Design of single dose bioequivalence study and relevant statistics; Review of regulatory requirements for conducting bioequivalent studies. Biopharmaceutical Classification System (BCS) of drugs.

PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY

Inorganic pharmaceutical & medicinal chemistry
Importance of inorganic compounds in pharmacy and medicine;
An outline of methods of preparation, uses, sources of impurities, tests for purity and identity, including limit tests for iron, arsenic, lead, heavy metals, chloride, sulphate and special tests if any, of the following classes of inorganic pharmaceuticals included in Indian Pharmacopoeia:
Gastrointestinal Agents:
Acidifying agents, Antacids, Protectives and Adsorbents, Cathartics;
Major Intra- and Extra-cellular Electrolytes:
Physiological ions. Electrolytes used for replacement therapy, acid-base balance and combination therapy;
Essential and Trace Elements:
Transition elements and their compounds of pharmaceutical importance, Iron and haematinics, mineral supplements; Cationic and anionic components of inorganic drugs useful for systemic effects;
Topical Agents:
Protectives, Astringents and Anti-infectives;
Gases and Vapors:
Oxygen, Anesthetics (inorganic) and Respiratory stimulants;
Dental Products:
Dentifrices, Anti-caries agents; Complexing and chelating agents used in therapy;
Miscellaneous Agents:
Sclerosing agents, Expectorants, Emetics, Inorganic poisons and antidotes.
Pharmaceutical Aids Used in Pharmaceutical Industry:
Anti-oxidants, Preservatives, Filter aids, Adsorbents, Diluents, Excipients, Suspending agents, Colorants;
Acids, Bases and Buffers:
Buffer equations and buffer capacity in general, buffers in pharmaceutical systems, preparation, stability, buffered isotonic solutions, measurements of tonicity, calculations and methods of adjusting isotonicity. Water;
Inorganic Radiopharmaceuticals:
Nuclear reaction, radioisotopes, radiopharmaceuticals, Nomenclature, Methods of obtaining their standards and units of activity, half-life, measurement of activity, clinical applications, dosage, hazards and precautions.

Physical Chemistry and its importance in pharmacy
Importance of basic fundamentals of physical chemistry in pharmacy:
Behaviour of Gases, Kinetic theory of gases, deviation from ideal behavior and explanation;
The Liquid State:
Physical properties (surface tension, parachor, viscosity, refractive index, dipole moment);
Solutions:
Ideal and real solutions, solutions of gases in liquids, colligative properties, partition coefficient, conductance and its measurement, Debye Huckel theory;
Thermodynamics:
First, Second and Third laws, Zeroth law, Concept of free energy, enthalpy and entropy, absolute temperature scale;
Thermochemical equations; Phase rule; Adsorption:
Freudlich and Gibbs adsorption, isotherms, Langmuir’s theory of adsorption;
Photochemistry:
Consequences of light absorption, Jabolenski diagram, Quantum efficiency;
Chemical Kinetics:
Zero, First and Second order reactions, complex reactions, theories of reaction kinetics, characteristics of homogeneous and heterogeneous catalysis, acid base and enzyme catalysis;
Quantum Mechanics :
Postulates of quantum mechanics, operators in quantum mechanics, the Schrodinger wave equation.

Organic Chemistry and its importance in pharmacy
Importance of fundamentals of organic chemistry in pharmaceutical sciences; Structure and Properties:
Atomic structure, Atomic orbitals, Molecular orbital theory, wave equation, Molecular orbitals, Bonding and Anti-bonding orbitals, Covalent bond, Hybrid orbitals, Intramolecular forces, Bond dissociation energy, Polarity of bonds, Polarity of molecules, Structure and physical properties, Intermolecular forces, Acids and bases;
Stereochemistry:
Nomenclature, isomerism, stereoisomerism, conformational and configurational isomerism, optical activity, specification of configuration, Reactions involving stereoisomers, chirality, conformations;
Stereoselective and stereospecific reactions; Structure, Nomenclature, Preparation and Reactions of:
Alkanes, Alkenes, Alkynes, Cyclic analogs, Dienes, Benzene, Polynuclear aromatic compounds, Arenes, Alkyl halides, Alcohols, Ethers, Epoxides, Amines, Phenols, Aldehydes and ketones, Carboxylic acids, Functional derivatives of' carboxylic acids, a,ß-Unsaturated carbonyl compounds, Reactive intermediates- carbocations, carbanions, carbenes and nitrenes;
Nucleophilic and Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution Reactions:
Reactivity and orientation;
Electrophilic and Nucleophilic Addition Reactions; Rearrangements
(Beckman, Hoffman, Benzilic acid, pinacole-pinacolone and Beyer-Villiger);
Elimination reactions; Conservation of Orbital Symmetry and Rules:
Electrocyclic, Cycloaddition and Sigmatropic reactions;
Neighboring group effects; Catalysis by transition metal complexes; Heterocyclic Compounds:
Nomenclature, preparation, properties and reactions of 3, 4, 5, 6 & 7-membered heterocycles with one or two heteroatoms like 0, N, S. Chemistry of lipids, Carbohydrates and Proteins.

Biochemistry
Biochemistry in pharmaceutical sciences:
The concept of free energy, Determination of change in free energy - from equilibrium constant and reduction potential, bioenergetics, production of ATP and its biological significance;
Enzymes:
Nomenclature, enzyme kinetics and their mechanism of action, mechanism of inhibition, enzymes and iso-enzymes in clinical diagnosis;
Co-enzymes:
Vitamins as co-enzymes and their significance. Metals as cofactors and their significance; Carbohydrate Metabolism: Conversion of polysaccharides to glucose-1-phosphate, Glycolysis, fermentation and their regulation, Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, Metabolism of galactose and galactosemia, Role of sugar nucleotides in biosynthesis, and Pentose phosphate pathway;
The Citric Acid Cycle:
Significance, reactions and energetics of the cycle, Amphibolic role of the cycle, and Glyoxalic acid cycle;
Lipids Metabolism :
Oxidation of fatty acids, ß-oxidation & energetics, biosynthesis of ketone bodies and their utilization, biosynthesis of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids, Control of lipid metabolism, Essential fatty acids & eicosanoids (prostaglandins, thromboxanes and leukotrienes), phospholipids, and sphingolipids, Biosynthesis of eicosanoids, cholesterol, androgens, progesterone, estrogens corticosteroids and bile acids;
Biological Oxidation:
Redox-potential, enzymes and co-enzymes involved in oxidation reduction & its control, The respiratory chain, its role in energy capture and its control, energetics of oxidative phosphorylation. Inhibitors of respiratory chain and oxidative phosphorylation, Mechanism of oxidative phosphorylation;
Metabolism of ammonia and nitrogen containing monomers:
Nitrogen balance, Biosynthesis of amino acids, Catabolism of amino acids, Conversion of amino acids to specialized products, Assimilation of ammonia, Urea. cycle, metabolic disorders of urea cycle, Metabolism of sulphur containing amino acids;
Purine biosynthesis:
Purine nucleotide inter-conversions;
Pyrimidine biosynthesis:
and formation of deoxyribounucleotides;
Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids:
Brief introduction of genetic organization of the mammalian genome, alteration and rearrangements of genetic material, Biosynthesis of DNA and its replications;
Mutation:
Physical & chemical mutagenesis/carcinogenesis, DNA repair mechanism. Biosynthesis of RNA;
Genetic Code and Protein Synthesis:
Genetic code, Components of protein synthesis and Inhibition of protein synthesis.

Medicinal Chemistry
Basic Principles:
Physico-chemical and stereoisomeric (Optical, geometrical) aspects of drug molecules and biological action, Bioisosterism, Drug-receptor interactions including transduction mechanisms;
Drug metabolism and Concept of Prodrugs; Principles of Drug Design (Theoretical Aspects):
Traditional analog and mechanism based approaches, QSAR approaches, Applications of quantum mechanics, Computer Aided Drug Designing (CADD) and molecular modeling;
Synthetic Procedures, Mode of Action, Uses, Structure Activity Relationships including Physicochemical Properties of the Following Classes of Drugs:
Drugs acting at synaptic and neuro-effector junction sites: Cholinergics, anti-cholinergics and cholinesterase inhibitors, Adrenergic drugs, Antispasmodic and anti-ulcer drugs, Local Anesthetics, Neuromuscular blocking agents;
Autacoids:
Antihistamines, Eicosanoids, Analgesic-antipyretics, Anti-inflammatory (non-steroidal) agents.
Steroidal Drugs:
Steroidal nomenclature (IUPAC) and stereochemistry, Androgens and anabolic agents, Estrogens and Progestational agents, Oral contraceptives, Adrenocorticoids;
Drugs acting on the central nervous system:
General Anesthetics, Hypnotics and Sedatives, Anticonvulsants, Anti-Parkinsonian drugs, Psychopharmacological agents (Neuroleptics, Anti-depressants, Anxiolytics), Opioid analgesics, Anti-tussives, CNS stimulants;
Diuretics; Cardiovascular drugs:
Anti-hypertensives, Anti-arrythmic agents, anti-anginal agents, Cardiotonics, Anti-hyperlipedemic agents, Anticoagulants and Anti-platelet drugs;
Thyroid and Anti thyroid drugs; Insulin and oral hypoglycemic agents;
Chemotherapeutic Agents used in bacterial, fungal, viral, protozoal, parasitic and other infections, Antibiotics: ß-Lactam, macrolides, tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, polypeptide antibiotics, fluoroquinolones,
Anti-metabolites
(including sulfonamides); Anti-neoplastic agents; Anti-viral agents (including anti–HIV);
Immunosuppressives and immunostimulants; Diagnostic agents; Pharmaceutical Aids; Microbial Transformations:
Introduction, types of reactions mediated by micro-organisms, design of biotransformation processes, selection of organisms, biotransformation process and its improvements with special reference to steroids;
Enzyme Immobilization:
Techniques of immobilization, factors affecting enzyme kinetics, Study of enzymes such as hyaluronidase, penicillinase, streptokinase, amylases and proteases, Immobilization of bacteria and plant cells.
Different techniques of pharmaceutical analysis, Preliminaries and definitions:
Significant figures, Rules for retaining significant digits, Types of errors, Mean deviation, Standard deviation, Statistical treatment of small data sets, Selection of sample, Precision and accuracy,

Pharmaceutical Analysis
Fundamentals of volumetric analysis:
methods of expressing concentration, primary and secondary standards:
Acid Base Titrations:
Acid base concepts, Role of solvents, Relative strengths of acids and bases, Ionization, Law of mass action, Common ion effect, Ionic product of water, pH, Hydrolysis of salts, Henderson-Hasselbach equation, Buffer solutions, Neutralization curves, Acid-base indicators, Theory of indicators, Choice of indicators, Mixed indicators, Polyprotic systems, Polyamine and amino acid systems, Amino acid titrations;
Oxidation Reduction Titrations:
Concepts of oxidation and reduction, Redox reactions, Strengths and equivalent weights of oxidizing and reducing agents, Theory of redox titrations, Redox indicators, Cell representations, Measurement of electrode potential, Oxidation-reduction curves, Iodimetry and Iodometry, Titrations involving cerric ammonium sulphate, potassium iodate, potassium bromate, potassium permanganate; titanous chloride, stannous chloride and Sodium 2,6-dichlorophenolindophenol;
Precipitation Titrations:
Precipitation reactions, Solubility product, Effect of acids, temperature and solvent upon the solubility of a precipitate, Argentometric titrations and titrations involving ammonium or potassium thiocyanate, mercuric nitrate, and barium sulphate, indicators, Methods of end point determination (GayLussac method, Mohr’s method, Volhard's method and Fajan's method).
Gravimetric Analysis:
Precipitation techniques, The colloidal state, Supersaturation, Co-precipitation, Post-precipitation, Digestion, washing of the precipitate, Filtration, Filter papers and crucibles, Ignition, Thermogravimetric curves, Specific examples like barium sulphate, aluminium as aluminium oxide, calcium as calcium oxalate and magnesium as magnesium pyrophosphate, Organic precipitants;
Non-aqueous titrations:
Acidic and basic drugs, Solvents used, Indicators;
Complexometric titrations;
Complexing agents used as titrants, Indicators, Masking and demasking;
Miscellaneous Methods of Analysis:
Diazotization titrations, Kjeldahl method of nitrogen estimation, Karl-Fischer aquametry, Oxygen flask combustion method, Gasometry;
Extraction procedures including separation of drugs from excipients; Potentiometry:
Standard redox potential, Nernst equation, Half-cell potential, Standard and indicating electrodes, potentiometric titrations;
Conductometry:
Specific and equivalent conductance, conductometric titrations;
Coulometry:
Coulomb’s law, Coulometric titrations at fixed potential/current;
Polarography:
Decomposition potential, Half-wave potential, Diffision/migration/migration current, Ilkovic equation, Cathodic/anodic polarography, Dropping mercury electrode, Graphite electrode, Organic polarography;
Amperometry:
Rotating platinum electrode, Amperometric titrations;
Chromatography:
Theory of chromatography, plate theory, Factors affecting resolution, van Deemter equation, The following chromatographic techniques (including instrumentation) with relevant examples of Pharmacopoeial products: TLC, HPLC, GLC, HPTLC, Paper Chromatography and Column Chromatography;
The Theoretical Aspects, Basic Instrumentation, Elements of Interpretation of Spectra, and Applications (quantitative and qualitative) of the Following Analytical Techniques:
Ultraviolet and visible spectrophotometry, Fluorimetry, Infrared spectrophotometry, Nuclear Magnetic Resonance spectroscopy, Mass Spectrometry (EI & CI only), Flame Photometry, Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, X-ray Diffraction Analysis, Radioimmunoassay.
Quality assurance:
GLP, ISO 9000, TQM, Quality Review and Quality documentation, Regulatory control, regulatory drug analysis, interpretation of analytical data, Validation, quality audit: quality of equipment, validation of equipment, validation of analytical procedures.

PHARMACOLOGY

Pathophysiology of common diseases; Basic Principles of Cell Injury and Adaptations:
Causes of Cellular injury, pathogenesis, morphology of cell injury, adaptations and cell death.
Basic Mechanisms involved in the process of inflammation and repair:
Vascular and cellular events of acute inflammation, chemical mediators of inflammation, pathogenesis of chronic inflammation, brief outline of the process of repair.
Immunopathophysiology:
T and B cells, MHC proteins, antigen presenting cells, immune tolerance, pathogenesis of hypersensitivity reactions, autoimmune diseases, AIDS, Amyloidosis.
Pathophysiology of Common Diseases:
Asthma, diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, gout, ulcerative colitis, neoplasia, psychosis, depression, mania, epilepsy, acute and chronic renal failure, hypertension, angina, congestive heart failure, atherosclerosis, myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, peptic ulcer, anemias, hepatic disorders, tuberculosis, urinary tract infections and sexually transmitted diseases. Wherever applicable the molecular basis should be discussed.

Fundamentals of general pharmacology:
Dosage forms and routes of administration, mechanism of action, combined effect of drugs, factors modifying drug action, tolerance and dependence; Pharmacogenetics; Principles of Basic and Clinical pharmacokinetics, absorption, Distribution, Metabolism and Excretion of drugs, Adverse Drug Reactions; Bioassay of Drugs and Biological Standardization; Discovery and development of new drugs, Bioavailability and bioequivalence studies;
Pharmacology of Peripheral Nervous System:
Neurohumoral transmission (autonomic and somatic), Parasympathomimetics, Parasympatholytics, Sympathomimetics, Adrenergic receptor and neuron blocking agents, Ganglion stimulants and blocking agents, Neuromuscular blocking Agents, Local anesthetic Agents.
Pharmacology of Central Nervous System:
Neurohumoral transmission in the C.N.S., General Anesthetics, Alcohols and disulfiram, Sedatives, Hypnotics, Anti-anxiety agents and Centrally acting muscle relaxants, Psychopharmacological agents (anti-psychotics), anti-maniacs and hallucinogens, Antidepressants, Anti-epileptics drugs, Anti-Parkinsonian drugs, Analgesics, Antipyretics, Narcotic analgesics and antagonists, C.N.S. stimulants, Drug Addiction and Drug Abuse.
Pharmacology of Cardiovascular System:
Drugs used in the management of congestive cardiac failure, Antihypertensive drugs, Anti-anginal and Vasodilator drugs, including calcium channel blockers and beta adrenergic antagonists, Anti-arrhythmic drugs, Anti-hyperlipedemic drugs, Drugs used in the therapy of shock.
Drugs Acting on the Hemopoietic System:
Hematinics, Anticoagulants, Vitamin K and hemostatic agents, Fibrinolytic and anti-platelet drugs, Blood and plasma volume expanders.
Drugs acting on urinary system:
Fluid and electrolyte balance, Diuretics.
Autacoids:
Histamine, Antihistaminic drugs, 5-HT- its agonists and antagonists, Prostaglandins, thromboxanes and leukotrienes, Angiotensin, Bradykinin and Substance P and other vasoactive peptides, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory and anti-gout agents.
Drugs Acting on the Respiratory System:
Anti-asthmatic drugs including bronchodilators, Anti-tussives and expectorants, Respiratory stimulants.
Drugs acting on the Gastrointestinal Tract:
Antacids, Anti-secretory and Anti-ulcer drugs, Laxatives and anti-diarrhoeal drugs, Appetite Stimulants and Suppressants, Emetics and anti-emetics, Miscellaneous: Carminatives, demulcents, protectives, adsorbents, astringents, digestants, enzymes and mucolytics.
Pharmacology of Endocrine System:
Hypothalamic and pituitary hormones, Thyroid hormones and anti thyroid drugs, parathormone, calcitonin and Vitamin D, Insulin, glucagons, incretins, oral hypoglycemic agents and insulin analogs, ACTH and corticosteroids, Androgens and anabolic steroids, Estrogens, progesterone and oral contraceptives, Drugs acting on the uterus.
Chemotherapy:
General Principles of Chemotherapy, Bacterial resistance; Sulfonamides and cotrimoxazole, Antibiotics- Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Aminoglycosides, Chloramphenicol, Macrolides, Tetracyclines, Quinolones, fluoroquinolones and Miscellaneous antibiotics; Chemotherapy of tuberculosis, leprosy, fungal diseases, viral diseases, HIV and AIDS, urinary tract infections and sexually transmitted diseases, malaria, amoebiasis and other protozoal infections and Anthelmentics. Chemotherapy of malignancy and immunosuppressive agents.
Principles of Toxicology:
Definition of poison, general principles of treatment of poisoning with particular reference to barbiturates, opioids, organophosphorous and atropine poisoning, Heavy metals and heavy metal antagonists.

Basic Concepts of Pharmacotherapy:
Clinical Pharmacokinetics and individualization of Drug therapy, Drug delivery systems and their Biopharmaceutic & Therapeutic considerations, Drugs used during infancy and in the elderly persons (Pediatrics & Geriatrics), Drugs used during pregnancy, Drug induced diseases, The basics of drug interactions, General principles of clinical toxicology, Common clinical laboratory tests and their interpretation;
Important Disorders of Organs, Systems and their Management:
Cardio-vascular disorders- Hypertension, Congestive heart failure, Angina, Acute myocardial infarction, Cardiac arrhythmias.
CNS Disorders:
Epilepsy, Parkinsonism, Schizophrenia,
Depression Respiratory disease-
Asthma.
Gastrointestinal Disorders-
Peptic ulcer, Ulcerative colitis, Hepatitis, Cirrhosis.
Endocrine Disorders-
Diabetes mellitus and Thyroid disorders.
Infectious Diseases-
Tuberculosis, Urinary tract infections, Enteric infections, Upper respiratory infections. Hematopoietic Disorders- Anemias,
Joint and Connective tissue disorders-
Rheumatic diseases, Gout and Hyperuricemia.
Neoplastic Diseases-
Acute Leukaemias, Hodgkin's disease. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring, Concept of Essential Drugs and Rational Drug use.

PHARMACOGNOSY

Sources of Drugs:
Biological, marine, mineral and plant tissue cultures as sources of drugs;
Classification of Drugs:
Morphological, taxonomical, chemical and pharmacological classification of drugs;
Study of medicinally important plants belonging to the families with special reference to:
Apocynacae, Solanaceae, Rutacease, Umbelliferae, Leguminosae, Rubiaceae, Liliaceae, Graminae, Labiatae, Cruciferae, Papaveraceae;
Cultivation, Collection, Processing and Storage of Crude Drugs:
Factors influencing cultivation of medicinal plants, Types of soils and fertilizers of common use. Pest management and natural pest control agents, Plant hormones and their applications, Polyploidy, mutation and hybridization with reference to medicinal plants.
Quality Control of Crude Drugs:
Adulteration of crude drugs and their detection by organoleptic, microscopic, physical, chemical and biological methods and properties.
Introduction to Active Constituents of Drugs:
Their isolation, classification and properties.

Systematic pharmacognostic study of the followings:
CARBOHYDRATES and derived products:
agar, guar gum acacia, Honey, Isabagol, pectin, Starch, sterculia and Tragacanth;
Lipids:
Bees wax, Castor oil, Cocoa butter, Codliver oil, Hydnocarpus oil, Kokum butter, Lard, Linseed oil, Rice, Bran oil, Shark liver oil and Wool fat;
RESINS:
Study of Drugs Containing Resins and Resin Combinations like Colophony, podophyllum, jalap, cannabis, capsicum, myrrh, asafoetida, balsam of Tolu, balsam of Peru, benzoin, turmeric, ginger;
TANNINS:
Study of tannins and tannin containing drugs like Gambier, black catechu, gall and myrobalan;
VOLATILE OILS:
General methods of obtaining volatile oils from plants, Study of volatile oils of Mentha, Coriander, Cinnamon, Cassia, Lemon peel, Orange peel, Lemon grass, Citronella, Caraway, Dill, Spearmint, Clove, Fennel, Nutmeg, Eucalyptus, Chenopodium, Cardamom, Valerian, Musk, Palmarosa, Gaultheria, Sandal wood;
Phytochemical Screening:
Preparation of extracts, Screening of alkaloids, saponins, cardenolides and bufadienolides, flavonoids and leucoanthocyanidins, tannins and polyphenols, anthraquinones, cynogenetic glycosides, amino acids in plant extracts;
FIBERS:
Study of fibers used in pharmacy such as cotton, silk, wool, nylon, glass-wool, polyester and asbestos.

Study of the biological sources, cultivation, collection, commercial varieties, chemical constituents, substitutes, adulterants, uses, diagnostic macroscopic and microscopic features and specific chemical tests of following groups of drugs:

GLYCOSIDE CONTAINING DRUGS:
Saponins :
Liquorice, ginseng, dioscorea, sarsaparilla, and senega.
Cardioactive glycosides:
Digitalis, squill, strophanthus and thevetia,
Anthraquinone cathartics:
Aloe, senna, rhubarb and cascara,
Others:
Psoralea, Ammi majus, Ammi visnaga, gentian, saffron, chirata, quassia.
ALKALOID CONTAINING DRUGS:
Pyridine-piperidine:
Tobacco, areca and lobelia.
Tropane:
Belladonna, hyoscyamus, datura, duboisia, coca and withania.
Quinoline and Isoquinoline:
Cinchona, ipecac, opium.
Indole:
Ergot, rauwolfia, catharanthus, nux-vomica and physostigma.
Imidazole:
Pilocarpus.
Steroidal:
Veratrum and kurchi.
Alkaloidal Amine:
Ephedra and colchicum.
Glycoalkaloid:
Solanum.
Purines:
Coffee, tea and cola. Biological sources, preparation, identification tests and uses of the following enzymes: Diastase, papain, pepsin, trypsin, pancreatin.
Studies of Traditional Drugs:
Common vernacular names, botanical sources, morphology, chemical nature of chief constituents, pharmacology, categories and common uses and marketed formulations of following indigenous drugs: Amla, Kantkari, Satavari, Tylophora, Bhilawa, Kalijiri, Bach, Rasna, Punamava, Chitrack, Apamarg, Gokhru, Shankhapushpi, Brahmi, Adusa, Atjuna, Ashoka, Methi, Lahsun, Palash, Guggal, Gymnema, Shilajit, Nagarmotha and Neem. The holistic concept of drug administration in traditional systems of medicine. Introduction to ayurvedic preparations like Arishtas, Asvas, Gutikas, Tailas, Chumas, Lehyas and Bhasmas.

General Techniques of Biosynthetic Studies and Basic Metabolic Pathways/Biogenesis:
Brief introduction to biogenesis of secondary metabolites of pharmaceutical importance.
Terpenes:
monoterpenes, sesquiterpenes, diterpenes, and triterpenoids.
Carotenoids:
a-carotenoids, ß-carotenes, vitamin A, Xanthophylls of medicinal importance.
Glycosides:
Digitoxin, digoxin, hecogenin, sennosides, diosgenin and sarasapogenin.
Alkaloids:
Atropine and related compounds, Quinine, Reserpine, Morphine, Papaverine, Ephedrine, Ergot and Vinca alkaloids.
Lignans, quassanoids and flavonoids. Role of plant-based drugs on National economy:
A brief account of plant based industries and institutions involved in work on medicinal and aromatic plants in India. Utilization and production of phyto-constituents such as quinine, calcium sennosides, podophyllotoxin, diosgenin, solasodine, and tropane alkaloids. Utilization of aromatic plants and derived products with special reference to sandalwood oil, mentha oil, lemon grass oil, vetiver oil, geranium oil and eucalyptus oil. World-wide trade in medicinal plants and derived products with special reference to diosgenin (disocorea), taxol (Taxus sps) digitalis, tropane alkaloid containing plants, Papain, cinchona, Ipecac, Liquorice, Ginseng, Aloe, Valerian, Rauwolfia and plants containing laxatives. Plant bitters and sweeteners.
Plant Tissue Culture:
Historical development of plant tissue culture, types of cultures, nutritional requirements, growth and their maintenance. Applications of plant tissue culture in pharmacognosy.
Marine pharmacognosy:
Novel medicinal agents from marine sources.
Natural allergens and photosensitizing agents and fungal toxins. Herbs as health foods. Herbal cosmetics. Standardization and quality control of herbal drugs, WHO guidelines for the standardization of herbal drugs.